CCNA3 V7 ENSA Modules 9 12 Exam Answers
CCNA3 V7 ENSA Modules 9 12 Exam Answers

CCNA3 v7 ENSA | Modules 9 – 12 Exam Answers

CCNA3 v7 Modules 9 - 12 Exam Answers
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Summary

Check answers here: CCNA3 v7 ENSA Modules 9 – 12: Optimize, Monitor, and Troubleshoot Networks Exam Answers. CCNA 200-301 Passed 100% !!

This exam will cover material from Modules 9 – 12 Optimize, Monitor, and Troubleshoot Networks of the CCNA 3 Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation v7.0 (ENSA) curriculum. This exam will be scored using the Weighted Model where each MCSA (Multiple-Choice Single-Answer) is worth two points and each MCMA (Multiple-Choice Multiple-Answer) is worth one point for each correct option. Other tasks types such as fill-in-the-blank, drag and drop (matching) and Packet Tracer items may be included in this exam. For Packet Tracer tasks, you must have the latest version of Packet Tracer installed on your machine.

This exam will cover material from Modules 9 – 12 of the CCNA3 Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation v7.0 (ENSA) curriculum.

This exam will be scored using the Weighted Model where each MCSA (Multiple-Choice Single-Answer) is worth two points and each MCMA (Multiple-Choice Multiple-Answer) is worth one point for each correct option. If more options are selected than required, the student will receive a score of zero.

CCNA3 v7 Optimize, Monitor, and Troubleshoot Networks Exam Answers

Refer to the exhibit. A user has configured a NIC on the PC as shown but finds that the PC is unable to access the Internet. What is the problem?

Correct! Wrong!

In order for a computer to communicate outside its network, it must have a valid default gateway configured.This address cannot be the same as the IP address of the computer.

A network administrator is deploying QoS with the ability to provide a special queue for voice traffic so that voice traffic is forwarded before network traffic in other queues. Which queuing method would be the best choice?

Correct! Wrong!

Low latency queuing (LLQ) allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice traffic, to be defined in a strict priority queue (PQ) and to always be sent first before any packets in any other queue are forwarded.

What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?

Correct! Wrong!

Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

Correct! Wrong!

A protocol analyzer such as Wireshark is capable of displaying the headers of data at any OSI Layer.

Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

Correct! Wrong!

One method of implementing redundancy is path redundancy, installing alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network. Redundant links in a switched network supports high availability and can be used for load balancing, reducing congestion on the network.

What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?

Correct! Wrong!

The Management Information Base (MIB) resides on a networking device and stores operational data about the device. The SNMP manager can collect information from SNMP agents. The SNMP agent provides access to the information.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the local serial 0/0/0 interface. Why are they not forming an adjacency?

Correct! Wrong!

The routers need to be in the same subnet in order to form an adjacency. The routing processes can be different on each router. The router IDs must be different for routers that participate in the same routing domain. The interfaces are not passive.

Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

Correct! Wrong!

Queuing and compression techniques can help to reduce and prevent UDP packet loss, but there is no congestion avoidance for User Datagram Protocol (UDP) based traffic.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

Correct! Wrong!

The requested address is the address of the TFTP server. A TFTP server is an application that can run on a multitude of network devices including a router, server, or even a networked PC.

What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?

Correct! Wrong!

Maintaining three separate network tiers is not always required or cost-efficient. All network designs require an access layer, but a two-tier design can collapse the distribution and core layers into one layer to serve the needs of a small location with few users.

A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:

R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom

What is the effect of the command sequence?

Correct! Wrong!

The boot system command is a global configuration command that allows the user to specify the source for the Cisco IOS Software image to load. In this case, the router is configured to boot from the IOS image that is stored on the TFTP server and will use the ROMmon imagethat is located in the ROM if it fails to locate the TFTP server or fails to load a valid image from the TFTP server.

What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 150 milliseconds (ms)?

Correct! Wrong!

What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

Correct! Wrong!

Network traffic is classified and marked as close to the source device as possible. The trust boundary is the location where the QoS markings on a packet are trusted as they enter an enterprise network.

What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?

Correct! Wrong!

What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?

Correct! Wrong!

A function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer is providing network access to the users. Layer 2 broadcast domain aggregation, Layer 3 routing boundaries aggregation, and high availability are distribution layer functions. The core layer provides fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.

The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

Correct! Wrong!

The ntp server ip-address global configuration command configures the NTP server for IOS devices.

A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a packet to travel from a source to a destination device and return. Which term describes the value?

Correct! Wrong!

What are the three layers of the switch hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

Please select 3 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

The access layer is the lowest layer and it provides network access to users. The distribution layer has many functions, but it aggregates data from the access layer, provides filtering, policy control, and sets Layer 3 routing boundaries. The core layer provides high speed connectivity.

What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

Correct! Wrong!

One way to contain the impact of a failure on the network is to implement redundancy. One way this is accomplished is by deploying redundant distribution layer switches and dividing the access layer switch connections between the redundant distribution layer switches. This creates what is called a switch block. Failures in a switch block are contained to that block and do not bring down the whole network.

Refer to the exhibit. What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

The capabilities of the devices displayed by the output show them to be a Cisco 2811 series router, Cisco 1941 series router, and a Cisco 2960 switch.

Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

Correct! Wrong!

Multilayer switches, also known as Layer 3 switches, can route and build a routing table. This capability is required in a multi-VLAN network and would influence the network designer to select a multilayer switch. The other options are features also available on Layer 2 switches, so they would not influence the decision to select a multilayer switch.

Refer to the exhibit. Why are routers R1 and R2 not able to establish an OSPF adjacency?​

Correct! Wrong!

On router R1, the network 192.168.10.0/30 is defined in the wrong area (area 1). It has to be defined in area 0 in order to establish adjacency with router R2, which has the network 192.168.10.0/30 defined in area 0.

What are two reasons to create a network baseline? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

A network baseline is created to provide a comparison point, at the time that the network is performing optimally, to whatever changes are implemented in the infrastructure. A baseline helps to keep track of the performance, to track the traffic patterns, and to monitor network behavior.

When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

Delay is the latency between a sending and receiving device. Jitter is the variation in the delay of the received packets. Both delay and jitter need to be controlled in order to support real-time voice and video traffic.

Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?

Correct! Wrong!

Without any QoS mechanisms in place, time-sensitive packets, such as voice and video, will be dropped with the same frequency as email and web browsing traffic.

What is the benefit of deploying Layer 3 QoS marking across an enterprise network?

Correct! Wrong!

Marking traffic at Layer 2 or Layer 3 is very important and will affect how traffic is treated in a network using QoS.

Layer 2 marking of frames can be performed for non-IP traffic.
Layer 2 marking of frames is the only QoS option available for switches that are not “IP aware.”
Layer 3 marking will carry the QoS information end-to-end.

Which device would be classified as a trusted endpoint?

Correct! Wrong!

What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

Wireless connectivity at the access layer provides increased flexibility, reduced costs, and the ability to grow and adapt to changing business requirements. Utilizing wireless routers and access points can provide an increase in the number of central points of failure. Wireless routers and access points will not provide an increase in bandwidth availability.

A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

Correct! Wrong!

The default gateway is the address of the device a host uses to access the Internet or another network. If the default gateway is missing or incorrect, that host will not be able to communicate outside the local network. Because the host can access other hosts on the local network, the network cable and the other parts of the IP configuration are working.

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

Correct! Wrong!

A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3 has a failure or experiences problems.

Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?

Correct! Wrong!

What are two characteristics of the best-effort QoS model? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

The best-effort QoS model provides no guarantees and it is commonly used on the Internet. The best-effort QoS model treats all network packets in the same way.

What role do network devices play in the IntServ QoS model?

Correct! Wrong!

Which statement describes SNMP operation?

Correct! Wrong!

An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects and stores information about the device and its operation. This information is stored by the agent locally in the MIB. An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using the get request to query the devices for data.

A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

Correct! Wrong!

The configuration of a switch block provides redundancy so that the failure of a single network device generally has little or no effect on end users.

In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?

Correct! Wrong!

In the “narrow the scope” step of gathering symptoms, a network engineer will determine if the network problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network. Once this step is complete and the layer is identified, the network engineer can determine which pieces of equipment are the most likely cause.

What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

Please select 3 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

There are three primary functions provided by the syslog service:

gathering logging information
selection of the type of information to be logged
selection of the destination of the logged information

An administrator wants to replace the configuration file on a Cisco router by loading a new configuration file from a TFTP server. What two things does the administrator need to know before performing this task? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

In order to identify the exact location of the desired configuration file, the IP address of the TFTP server and the name of the configuration file are essential information. Because the file is a new configuration, the name of the current configuration file is not necessary.

What are two approaches to prevent packet loss due to congestion on an interface? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

There are three approaches to prevent sensitive traffic from being dropped:

Increase link capacity to ease or prevent congestion.
Guarantee enough bandwidth and increase buffer space to accommodate bursts of traffic from fragile flows.
Prevent congestion by dropping lower-priority packets before congestion occurs.

What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

Voice traffic does not consume a lot of network resources, such as bandwidth. However, it is very sensitive to delay and dropped packets cannot be retransmitted. For good voice quality, the amount of latency should always be less than 150 milliseconds.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What should the administrator do first when troubleshooting the OSPFv2 implementation?

Correct! Wrong!

A prerequisite for OSPFv2 neighbor relationships to form between two routers is Layer 3 connectivity. A successful ping confirms that a router interface is active and may be able to form an OSPF neighbor adjacency.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show lldp neighbors command on a switch. What are two conclusions that can be drawn? (Choose two.)

Please select 2 correct answers

Correct! Wrong!

In the output from the show lldp command, under Capability, R indicates a router and B indicates a bridge (switch). Nothing indicates that Dev1 and Dev2 are connected to one another.

What configuration scenario would offer the most protection to SNMP get and set messages?

Correct! Wrong!

SNMPv3 supports authentication and encryption with the auth and priv security levels. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 do not support authentication or encryption. Using a default community string is not secure because the default string of “public” is well known and would allow anyone with SNMP systems to read device MIBs.

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?

Correct! Wrong!

When performing an upgrade or testing different IOS versions, the boot system command is used to select which image is used to boot the Cisco device.

When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?

Correct! Wrong!

The purpose of establishing a network performance baseline is to provide a reference of normal or average network use to enable data traffic anomalies to be detected and then investigated. Network operations that are not average, or are not normal, cannot be used to establish a network performance baseline.

A network manager wants lists the contents of flash. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

Correct! Wrong!

A network manager wants to add a time to log messages so that there is record of when the message was generated. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?

Correct! Wrong!

As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

Correct! Wrong!

EtherChannel is utilized on a network to increase speed capabilities by grouping multiple physical ports into one or more logical EtherChannel links between two switches. STP is used to provide redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic between switches. FHRPs are used to group physical devices to provide traffic flow in the event of failure.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured an ACL preventing Telnet and HTTP access to the HQ web server from guest users in the Branch LAN. The address of the web server is 192.168.1.10 and all guest users are assigned addresses in the 192.168.10.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one can access any of the HQ servers. What is the problem?

Correct! Wrong!

Both named and numbered ACLs have an implicit deny ACE at the end of the list. This implicit deny blocks all traffic.

ENSA | Modules 9 – 12
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