CCNA3 v7 Final Exam Answers
Summary
Check answers here: CCNA3 v7 SRWE Final Exam Answers Full: Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation Exam Answers. CCNA 200-301 Passed 100% !!
This exam will cover material from Final Exam of the CCNA3 Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation v7.0 (ENSA) curriculum. This exam will be scored using the Weighted Model where each MCSA (Multiple-Choice Single-Answer) is worth two points and each MCMA (Multiple-Choice Multiple-Answer) is worth one point for each correct option. Other tasks types such as fill-in-the-blank, drag and drop (matching) and Packet Tracer items may be included in this exam. For Packet Tracer tasks, you must have the latest version of Packet Tracer installed on your machine.
This exam will cover material from Final Exam of the CCNA3 Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation v7.0 (ENSA) curriculum.
This exam will be scored using the Weighted Model where each MCSA (Multiple-Choice Single-Answer) is worth two points and each MCMA (Multiple-Choice Multiple-Answer) is worth one point for each correct option. If more options are selected than required, the student will receive a score of zero.
CCNA3 v7 Final Exam Answers Full
Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?
What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display any dynamic PAT translations that have been created by traffic?
In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet?
A student, doing a summer semester of study overseas, has taken hundreds of pictures on a smartphone and wants to back them up in case of loss. What service or technology would support this requirement?
What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency?
An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 10.0.0.0/16, 10.1.0.0/16, and 10.2.0.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 10.1.0.0 network to neighbors?
A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers?
A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need?
Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 172.16.91.0 255.255.255.192. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
Which set of access control entries would allow all users on the 192.168.10.0/24 network to access a web server that is located at 172.17.80.1, but would not allow them to use Telnet?
For an extended ACL to meet these requirements the following need to be included in the access control entries: identification number in the range 100-199 or 2000-2699 permit or deny parameter protocol source address and wildcard destination address and wildcard port number or name
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?
Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.3.8 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.3.8, a destination address of 10.10.3.8, and a protocol of 53 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
If an outside host does not have the Cisco AnyConnect client preinstalled, how would the host gain access to the client image?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?
The output of debug ip nat shows each packet that is translated by the router. The "s" is the source IP address of the packet and the "d" is the destination. The address after the arrow ("->") shows the translated address. In this case, the translated address is on the 209.165.201.0 subnet but the ISP facing interface is in the 209.165.200.224/27 subnet. The ISP may drop the incoming packets, or might be unable to route the return packets back to the host because the address is in an unknown subnet.
An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 10.27.27.0 255.255.255.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?
A failure domain is the area of a network that is impacted when a critical device such as switch S3 has a failure or experiences problems.
What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?
Which queuing mechanism has no provision for prioritizing or buffering but simply forwards packets in the order they arrive?
Which statement describes a VPN?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?
What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
Which two scenarios would result in a duplex mismatch? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
What type of traffic is described as predictable and smooth?
Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.31.7.45 eq dns . If a packet with a source address of 10.1.1.201, a destination address of 192.31.7.45, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to back up the current running configuration of the router to a USB drive, and enters the command copy usbflash0:/R1-config running-config on the router command line. After removing the USB drive and connecting it to a PC, the administrator discovers that the running configuration was not properly backed up to the R1-config file. What is the problem?
Which protocol provides authentication, integrity, and confidentiality services and is a type of VPN?
Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications?
The common data formats that are used in many applications including network automation and programmability are as follows: JavaScript Object Notation (JSON): In JSON, the data known as an object is one or more key/value pairs enclosed in braces { }. Keys must be strings within double quotation marks ” “. Keys and values are separated by a colon. eXtensible Markup Language (XML): In XML, the data is enclosed within a related set of tags data. YAML Ain’t Markup Language (YAML): In YAML, the data known as an object is one or more key value pairs. Key value pairs are separated by a colon without the use of quotation marks. YAML uses indentation to define its structure, without the use of brackets or commas.
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router building a link-state database based on received LSAs?
Which is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?
Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?
Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?
Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1# Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match)
Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
OSPF elections of a DR are based on the following in order of precedence: highest pritority from 1 -255 (0 = never a DR) highest router ID highest IP address of a loopback or active interface in the absence of a manually configured router ID. Loopback IP addresses take higher precedence than other interfaces. In this case routers R4 and R1 have the highest router priority. Between the two, R3 has the higher router ID. Therefore, R4 will become the DR and R1 will become the BDR.
Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?
Refer to the exhibit. Employees on 192.168.11.0/24 work on critically sensitive information and are not allowed access off their network. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?
A company is developing a security policy for secure communication. In the exchange of critical messages between a headquarters office and a branch office, a hash value should only be recalculated with a predetermined code, thus ensuring the validity of data source. Which aspect of secure communications is addressed?
Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.7 host 198.133.219.76 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 198.133.219.100, a destination address of 198.133.219.170, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
What is a characteristic of the REST API?
What is the main function of a hypervisor?
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add an ACE to the TRAFFIC-CONTROL ACL that will deny IP traffic from the subnet 172.23.16.0/20. Which ACE will meet this requirement?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 100 permit tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.200.0 0.0.0.255 eq www . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.10.244, a destination address of 172.17.200.56, and a protocol of 80 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 210 permit tcp 172.18.20.0 0.0.0.31 172.18.20.32 0.0.0.31 eq ftp . If a packet with a source address of 172.18.20.14, a destination address of 172.18.20.40, and a protocol of 21 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear dynamic entries before the timeout has expired?
Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?
Refer to the exhibit. If no router ID was manually configured, what would router Branch1 use as its OSPF router ID?
In OSPFv2, a Cisco router uses a three-tier method to derive its router ID. The first choice is the manually configured router ID with the router-id command. If the router ID is not manually configured, the router will choose the highest IPv4 address of the configured loopback interfaces. Finally if no loopback interfaces are configured, the router chooses the highest active IPv4 address of its physical interfaces.
How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?
Live migration allows moving of one virtual server to another virtual server that could be in a different location that is some distance from the original data center.
What protocol synchronizes with a private master clock or with a publicly available server on the internet?
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has an IP address of 192.168.11.10 and needs access to manage R1. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?
Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address. Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the destination as possible. Extended ACLs permit or deny packets based on the source IPv4 address and destination IPv4 address, protocol type, source and destination TCP or UDP ports and more. Because the filtering of extended ACLs is so specific, extended ACLs should be located as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be filtered. Undesirable traffic is denied close to the source network without crossing the network infrastructure.
A group of users on the same network are all complaining about their computers running slowly. After investigating, the technician determines that these computers are part of a zombie network. Which type of malware is used to control these computers?
What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?
A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?
What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?
Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?
When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has deployed QoS and has configured the network to mark traffic on the VoIP phones as well as the Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches. Where should initial marking occur to establish the trust boundary?
Traffic should be classified and marked as close to its source as possible. The trust boundary identifies at which device marked traffic should be trusted. Traffic marked on VoIP phones would be considered trusted as it moves into the enterprise network.
What is a characteristic of the two-tier spine-leaf topology of the Cisco ACI fabric architecture?
What protocol is used in a system that consists of three elements–a manager, agents, and an information database?
What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display information about NAT configuration parameters and the number of addresses in the pool?
A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use applications such as John the Ripper,THC Hydra, RainbowCrack, and Medusa?
What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network?
Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?
Which three types of VPNs are examples of enterprise-managed site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
Refer to the exhibit. Internet privileges for an employee have been revoked because of abuse but the employee still needs access to company resources. What is the best ACL type and placement to use in this situation?
Standard ACLs permit or deny packets based only on the source IPv4 address. Because all traffic types are permitted or denied, standard ACLs should be located as close to the destination as possible. Extended ACLs permit or deny packets based on the source IPv4 address and destination IPv4 address, protocol type, source and destination TCP or UDP ports and more. Because the filtering of extended ACLs is so specific, extended ACLs should be located as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be filtered. Undesirable traffic is denied close to the source network without crossing the network infrastructure.
Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?
In an OSPF network which OSPF structure is used to create the neighbor table on a router?
Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are connected via a serial link. One router is configured as the NTP master, and the other is an NTP client. Which two pieces of information can be obtained from the partial output of the show ntp associations detail command on R2? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
With the show NTP associations command, the IP address of the NTP master is given.
A network technician is configuring SNMPv3 and has set a security level of auth . What is the effect of this setting?
What protocol uses agents, that reside on managed devices, to collect and store information about the device and its operation?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. Which conclusion can be drawn from this OSPF multiaccess network?
On OSPF multiaccess networks, a DR is elected to be the collection and distribution point for LSAs sent and received. A BDR is also elected in case the DR fails. All other non-DR or BDR routers become DROTHER. Instead of flooding LSAs to all routers in the network, DROTHERs only send their LSAs to the DR and BDR using the multicast address 224.0.0.6. If there is no DR/BDR election, the number of required adjacencies is n(n-1)/2 = > 4(4-1)/2 = 6. With the election, this number is reduced to 3.
What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?
Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting, what service or technology would support requirement?
What are two syntax rules for writing a JSON array? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?
Which two IPsec protocols are used to provide data integrity?
Please select 2 correct answers
An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 172.20.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which two commands should be used? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
To deny traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network, the access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 command is used. To permit all other traffic, the access-list 95 permit any statement is added.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
The first two lines of the ACL allow host 10.0.70.23 FTP access to the server that has the IP address of 10.0.54.5. The next line of the ACL allows HTTP access to the server from any host that has an IP address that starts with the number 10. The fourth line of the ACL denies any other type of traffic to the server from any source IP address. The last line of the ACL permits anything else in case there are other servers or devices added to the 10.0.54.0/28 network. Because traffic is being filtered from all other locations and for the 10.0.70.23 host device, the best place to put this ACL is closest to the server.
Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
The output of show ip nat statistics shows that there are 2 total addresses and that 2 addresses have been allocated (100%). This indicates that the NAT pool is out of global addresses to give new clients. Based on the show ip nat translations, PCs at 10.1.1.33 and 10.1.1.123 have used the two available addresses to send ICMP messages to a host on the outside network.
A network administrator modified an OSPF-enabled router to have a hello timer setting of 20 seconds. What is the new dead interval time setting by default?
An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
An ACL is applied inbound on a router interface. The ACL consists of a single entry: access-list 101 permit udp 192.168.100.0 0.0.2.255 64.100.40.0 0.0.0.15 eq telnet . If a packet with a source address of 192.168.101.45, a destination address of 64.100.40.4, and a protocol of 23 is received on the interface, is the packet permitted or denied?
What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals?
In JSON, what is held within square brackets [ ]?
What is a WAN?
Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?
Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with various applications?
Which type of VPN connects using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) feature?
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?
R1 has to have NAT-POOL2 bound to ACL 1. This is accomplished with the command R1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool NAT-POOL2. This would enable the router to check for all interesting traffic and if it matches ACL 1 it would be translated by use of the addresses in NAT-POOL2.
A network administrator is troubleshooting an OSPF problem that involves neighbor adjacency. What should the administrator do?
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router running an algorithm to determine the best path to each destination?
Which type of OSPFv2 packet is used to forward OSPF link change information?
What protocol is a vendor-neutral Layer 2 protocol that advertises the identity and capabilities of the host device to other connected network devices?
A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?
What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Which type of server would be used to keep a historical record of messages from monitored network devices?
What protocol uses smaller stratum numbers to indicate that the server is closer to the authorized time source than larger stratum numbers?
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPsec?
Refer to the exhibit. What three conclusions can be drawn from the displayed output? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. If the network administrator created a standard ACL that allows only devices that connect to the R2 G0/0 network access to the devices on the R1 G0/1 interface, how should the ACL be applied?
Because standard access lists only filter on the source IP address, they are commonly placed closest to the destination network. In this example, the source packets will be coming from the R2 G0/0 network. The destination is the R1 G0/1 network. The proper ACL placement is outbound on the R1 G0/1 interface.
An attacker is redirecting traffic to a false default gateway in an attempt to intercept the data traffic of a switched network. What type of attack could achieve this?
What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?
What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?
A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?
A company has consolidated a number of servers and it is looking for a program or firmware to create and control virtual machines which have access to all the hardware of the consolidated servers. What service or technology would support this requirement?
What protocol sends periodic advertisements between connected Cisco devices in order to learn device name, IOS version, and the number and type of interfaces?
An administrator is configuring single-area OSPF on a router. One of the networks that must be advertised is 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0. What wildcard mask would the administrator use in the OSPF network statement?
When will an OSPF-enabled router transition from the Down state to the Init state?
Which two statements describe the use of asymmetric algorithms? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
What are three components used in the query portion of a typical RESTful API request? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?
Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?
What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
What functionality does mGRE provide to the DMVPN technology?
DMVPN is built on three protocols, NHRP, IPsec, and mGRE. NHRP is the distributed address mapping protocol for VPN tunnels. IPsec encrypts communications on VPN tunnels. The mGRE protocol allows the dynamic creation of multiple spoke tunnels from one permanent VPN hub.
In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?
What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to identify inside local addresses that are to be translated?
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 400 milliseconds (ms)?
Which type of VPN is the preferred choice for support and ease of deployment for remote access?
What are two types of attacks used on DNS open resolvers? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?
A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use applications such as Nmap, SuperScan, and Angry IP Scanner?
Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?
Traffic shaping buffers excess packets in a queue and then forwards the traffic over increments of time, which creates a smoothed packet output rate. Traffic policing drops traffic when the amount of traffic reaches a configured maximum rate, which creates an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs.
What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.)
Please select 3 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server?
Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. The command to do this would be R2(config-if)# ip nat outside.
What is a purpose of establishing a network baseline?
A baseline is used to establish normal network or system performance. It can be used to compare with future network or system performances in order to detect abnormal situations.
In an OSPF network which two statements describe the link-state database (LSDB)? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Which type of VPN allows multicast and broadcast traffic over a secure site-to-site VPN?
How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?
Refer to the exhibit. The company has decided that no traffic initiating from any other existing or future network can be transmitted to the Research and Development network. Furthermore, no traffic that originates from the Research and Development network can be transmitted to any other existing or future networks in the company. The network administrator has decided that extended ACLs are better suited for these requirements. Based on the information given, what will the network administrator do?
In which OSPF state is the DR/BDR election conducted?
A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use packet sniffers?
What are the two types of VPN connections? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to limit the connection to R1 vty lines to only the IT group workstations in the network 192.168.22.0/28. The administrator verifies the successful Telnet connections from a workstation with IP 192.168.22.5 to R1 before the ACL is applied. However, after the ACL is applied to the interface Fa0/0, Telnet connections are denied. What is the cause of the connection failure?
The source IP range in the deny ACE is 192.168.20.0 0.0.3.255, which covers IP addresses from 192.168.20.0 to 192.168.23.255. The IT group network 192.168.22.0/28 is included in the 192.168.20/22 network. Therefore, the connection is denied. To fix it, the order of the deny and permit ACE should be switched.
What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to display all static translations that have been configured?
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator first configured an extended ACL as shown by the output of the show access-lists command. The administrator then edited this access-list by issuing the commands below. Router(config)# ip access-list extended 101 Router(config-ext-nacl)# no 20 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 5 permit tcp any any eq 22 Router(config-ext-nacl)# 20 deny udp any any Which two conclusions can be drawn from this new configuration? (Choose two.)
Please select 2 correct answers
After the editing, the final configuration is as follows: Router# show access-lists Extended IP access list 101 5 permit tcp any any eq ssh 10 deny tcp any any 20 deny udp any any 30 permit icmp any any So, only SSH packets and ICMP packets will be permitted.
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